the case I was thinking about was this one:
On 3/25/08 3:33 PM, "Simon Josefsson" <simon(_at_)josefsson(_dot_)org> wrote:
If we learned that the anonymous posting actually came from person was
affiliated with the IPR holder, then there is legal recourse. My
point is that by avoiding anonymous posting, the likelihood of such
abuse is significantly reduced.
I think the point would be valid if there were significant abuse today.
I don't know what would qualify as significant here, but there has been at
least one rather high profile antitrust case in the recent history
(semiconductor industry), in which a situation similar to the one we are
discussing has played a role.
If the account at
is to be trusted, I can't find many similarities with the situation we
are discussing here. Could you clarify how anonymous contributions
played a role in your example?
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