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Re: [Asrg] 0. General - anti-harvesting (was Inquiry about CallerID Verification)

2004-03-30 16:11:27
On Dec 1,  4:35am, Eric S. Raymond wrote:
}
} Bart Schaefer <schaefer(_at_)brasslantern(_dot_)com>:
} > Suppose the (not uncommon case) of a sending MTA that is not the
} > same host as the MX for the sender's domain. Call these MTA1 and
} > MX1. A message is transmitted via MTA1 to the recipient's MX, which
} > I'll call MX2. If the sender mailbox is valid at MTA1 -- that is,
} > MTA1 can successfully deliver a DSN to that mailbox in the event of
} > a 5xx response from MX2 -- where is the requirement that the mailbox
} > also be valid when presented as a RCPT TO: at MX1?
}
} RFC2821 says the Return-Path has to be the same address that was
} presented to the MAIL command.

So what?  MX1 isn't any party to the protocol exchange between MTA1 and
MX2.  The reverse-path is completely valid as far as MTA1 can tell; if
MX2 responds 5xx, MTA1 will do the right thing.  You still haven't shown
me how or why any of this affects what happens if MX1 becomes party to
a separate SMTP transaction initiated by MX2, whether involving the same
or any other mailbox.

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