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Re: [Asrg] Re: Spam send/receive ratio

2004-05-22 06:06:45
"Chris" <asrg(_at_)rebel(_dot_)com(_dot_)au> wrote:
No what I was saying is that using the statistics of mail volume to try and
pinpoint a spammer is a bogus test.

  When used alone.  I never said it should be used alone.  In fact, I
said the exact opposite.

Now your good intentioned MTA say "hey I got mail from xyz, I'll check his
volumes". and it comes up with "normal volume = 20, last hours volume =
5000". "Ooops" the MTA says "Spammer alert" and tosses my email.

  Then it's not "my good intentioned MTA".  It's an MTA you invented
by explicitly ignoring my statements about how MTA's should deal with
high-volume spam.  I hate it when people read my messages, and
conclude that I believe the exact opposite of what I've said.

  Can you please explain why you're arguing that I believe high-volume
to be a near-perfect indicator of spam?  I just can't understand how
you come to that decision.

Perhaps it also looked for other statistically telltale clues such
as an embedded URL and/or a perhaps the words '/special.*price/' and
combined with the sudden high volume it decides 'spam!'.

  If an MTA decides that a message is spam, that's it's perogative.

  In this (badly defined, hypothetical) case, I could agree that the
"spam" determination is probably not the bes thing to do.

My argument is simple. Mail Volumes can *in no way* be used to indicate
spam. it is simply flawed logic.

  By the same argument, the word "v**gr*" cannot be used to indicate
spam, because normal people use it in normal messages.

  The reality is different.  Keywords are strongly correlated with
"spamminess" of a message.  But they're not perfectly correlated.
Similarly, suddenly receiving a high volume of mail from a host which
usually sneds low-volume traffic is strongly correlated with spam from
zombied machines, or a new account buy a spammer, etc.  See the ASRG
archives for ISP admins discussion of this exact scenario.

Again to return to the Tattoo 'statistic'. Imagine a Judge in a murder trial
telling the jury that statistically more murderers have tattoos.  and as the
defendant has a tattoo he is more likely to be the murderer.

  The first statement may be correct.  The second does not follow from
the first.  You are arguing from flawed logic.  I tried to explain why
in my previous message, and it looks like I failed to communicate.

  Please read books by Marilyn Vos Savant on logic, or Jon Paulos
Allen.

  I suggest:

http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/tg/detail/-/0679726012/102-9321111-1748922?v=glance
http://www.alibris.com/search/search.cfm?qwork=5268032&matches=21&qsort=r

The statistic may be absolutely correct,

  There is no statistic in your argument.  There is simply flawed
logic.  Correlation does not imply causation.

  Alan DeKok.

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