Bill Cole <aarg(_at_)billmail(_dot_)scconsult(_dot_)com> wrote:
At 8:37 AM -0400 6/5/03, Dave Aronson wrote:
"Peter Kay" <peter(_at_)titankey(_dot_)com> wrote:
> A recipient implicitly approves of receiving email from a given
> sender if the recipient has previously sent email to the sender
> and the recipient has not explicitly requested to not receive
> further email from the sender.
Nope. X spams Y. Y, recalling advice never to contact a spammer
directly, reports it to ISP(X) for punishment and ISP(Y) for
blocking, but does NOT request removal. X has certainly NOT thus
implicitly consented to X's next spam-run!
I think you have your X's and Y's mixed up.
In your example, Mr. Kay's axiom would imply that X has implicitly
given permission for Y to mail him.
I think that's sound.
Oops, yes, you're right, sorry, mea culpa, etc. Too much blood in the
coffee stream indeed....
--
David J. Aronson, Unemployed Software Engineer near Washington DC
See http://destined.to/program/ for online resume, and other info
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