On May 5, 6:49pm, Hallam-Baker, Phillip wrote:
}
} Alice signs a contract with Bob in which Bob agrees to paint Alice's
} house for $100.
I'm curious: Anyone know of case law in which the rest of Phillip's
example stands as is, but the contract Alice signs with Bob is to post
billboards on Jim's wall without Jim's permission?
That is, if the contract isn't legal to begin with, can Bob still be
sued for breach?
You are attempting to turn 'collateral damage' to direct, ignoring the
fact that what is objectionable and I contend, actionable is the
deliberate harm cased to third parties.
The correct analogy would be that Carol signs a contract with Bob
to post billboards on Jim's wall.
The legality of Carol's contract with Bob might affect Carol's claim
against Mallet but it does not affect Alice's claim against Mallet.
Phill
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