ietf-dkim
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Re: [ietf-dkim] What is a valid ADSP signature

2009-01-07 17:26:03

On Jan 6, 2009, at 6:06 PM, MH Michael Hammer (5304) wrote:

I'll stick t o inline comments at the risk of this getting confusing.

-----Original Message-----
From: Jim Fenton [mailto:fenton(_at_)cisco(_dot_)com]

Suppose that ietf.org asserts an ADSP record but doesn't require  
signatures on incoming messages, even from its own domain (there's  
no requirement that they do).  Someone spoofs a message from
chair(_at_)ietf(_dot_)org, which is of course unsigned.  The message coming  
out of the list looks like it has an author signature.  I have a  
problem with that.

An ADSP signature represents the Domain of the Author, and not that of  
the Author.

If ietf.org is willing to put it's signature on the spoof message I  
would assert that it has a DKIM problem more than an ADSP problem.

Since the From is always included within a DKIM signature, when just  
d= compliance is required, it remains a matter of signing policy as to  
which message is signed by the domain.  If they have asserted that all  
of their email is signed, then proper list operation should not  
require a signature unable to indicate for which entity the message  
had been signed.  The signature should not be forced to affirm a From  
email-address, as might be the case with mailing lists.  The more  
fundamental aspect as to how an acceptable ADSP signature is defined,  
and whether it changes the RFC4781's definition for the i= parameter.

Either the message has a valid signature or it does not. If there is  
a valid signature then ietf.org is claiming responsibility. If it  
doesn't have a valid signature....then not so much. If ietf.org is  
sending out spoofed messages spoofing a "from" then it has a problem  
regardless of whether it DKIM signs, uses ADSP or does anything else..

This of course would only be a problem when the domain used within the  
mailing list corresponds to the same domain as used by a mailing  
list.  When the i= does not match with that of the From, it should be  
obvious the signature is not indicating prior authentication of the  
 From entity.
...

The d=/i= distinction was originally created to simplify key  
management by domains having many subdomains, in that they could  
publish the keys in a parent domain (d=) while signing for a  
subdomain (i=).  You're basically suggesting that we abandon that  
optimization so that we can use the d= domain  rather than the i=  
domain for ADSP.

I'm too tired to wade back through the list to find the discussion  
that included statements from receivers that for the most part the  
finer granularity desired by some senders was not necessarily useful  
from the receiver perspective. I'm not going to argue with  
receivers. I sign email with DKIM because it helps them identify  
legitimate mail from our domains vs the spoofed mail. For my use  
case I try to keep it as simple as possible.

I do not agree that by not restricting the use of the i= parameter,  
beyond what is already required by RFC4871 when assessing ADSP  
compliance, abandons any optimization.  The i= parameter will still  
allow the signature to communicate for which entity was the signature  
added.  In the normal range of email, there will be cases where a  
message is not introduced by one of the entities found within the From  
header field.  Basing compliance upon the d= parameters matching still  
allows the domain to determine what email they are willing to sign,  
and importantly, indicate on whose behalf the signature was applied.   
(The original definition of the i= parameter.)  I tend to agree with  
Michael more than Jim on this topic.

-Doug
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