At 2013-01-18 18:54 -0500, Louis-Dominique Dubeau wrote:
On Fri, 2013-01-18 at 17:17 -0500, G. Ken Holman wrote:
> >2. Perhaps instead of the 'Â?' ligature, $text uses 'oe'
>
> Use normalize-unicode() on both operands.
I did not think it would work, so I created a test and indeed it does
not work. There's a good reason for this: generally speaking the single
letter ? and the two letters oe are not equivalent. Reading the Unicode
documentation for u0153 confirms that ? has no decomposition.
Thank you! It was a naïve assumption on my
part. Please forgive my haste in jumping to a
conclusion. I appreciate that you were able to
demonstrate with a working illustration.
So, is "?" not a ligature or is it just that
Unicode does not provide a decomposition?
. . . . . . Ken
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