On 24 Apr 2006, at 5:09 PM, Paul Hoffman wrote:
Validating messages
a priori does not do that.
True, but does it hurt to do so? If a recipient validates a message
that has "expired", what is the harm to the recipient? The
advatage, of course, is that they are now sure where the message
came from; this is the same as in the normal, unexpired case.
There's nothing wrong with it, I don't think. It's just that they way
the present text reads to me, if I am to follow the signer's wishes,
it is to reject a priori. If we want different, we should just say so.
Jon
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