On Friday, Jan 9, 2004, at 22:06 US/Eastern, Mike S wrote:
At 06:43 PM 1/9/2004, Ken Raeburn wrote...
If you think there's some violation of law going on here, please be
more
specific. What law, and in what country?
Try to keep up. A specific citation has already been made.
Not in any mail I've seen so far, but the other traffic since implies
I've missed something. Investigating that... my apologies.
In any case, the quotations I've seen suggest you believe that the
blocking is done without authorization. As I said in my previous mail,
I suspect the service agreement is likely to provide for it; it would
be something for the customer to take up with the ISP if they believe
otherwise. And I suspect the receiving computer to which "damage"
would be done would be the ISP's mail server; presumably none of this
is interfering with the transmission between the ISP's mail server and
the customer's machine.
Ken