Bart Schaefer <schaefer(_at_)brasslantern(_dot_)com>:
} RFC2821 says the Return-Path has to be the same address that was
} presented to the MAIL command.
So what? MX1 isn't any party to the protocol exchange between MTA1 and
MX2. The reverse-path is completely valid as far as MTA1 can tell; if
MX2 responds 5xx, MTA1 will do the right thing. You still haven't shown
me how or why any of this affects what happens if MX1 becomes party to
a separate SMTP transaction initiated by MX2, whether involving the same
or any other mailbox.
I don't see how the presence of MXes matters. Are you maintaining that
what's in the MAIL FROM need not be a valid reply address?
--
<a href="http://www.catb.org/~esr/";>Eric S. Raymond</a>
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