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Re: why can't IETF emulate IEEE on this point?

2007-09-25 12:30:35
On 25 Sep 2007 at 18:40 +0000, Paul Vixie allegedly wrote:
very clear, very well done, but if anything it adds to my list of
questions rather than subtracting from that, since it begs the
question, what is the objective definition of "reasonable and
nondiscriminatory"?

The more a disclosure clarifies that, the more the WGs like it.

On 25 Sep 2007 at 11:51 -0700, Stephan Wenger allegedly wrote:
Actually, per RFC 3978 and friends, the IETF does not even require a
RAND commitment.  There have recently been cases where RFCs have
been issued with known patents that are not offered under RAND
terms.  It's up to the WG and IETF consensus to decide whether I-Ds
including such encumbered technology can become RFCs (and what class
of RFCs).

Right.

I'm with Ted ... let's take this over to ipr-wg.

Scott

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