In <200205090255(_dot_)g492tOg16648(_at_)astro(_dot_)cs(_dot_)utk(_dot_)edu>
Keith Moore <moore(_at_)cs(_dot_)utk(_dot_)edu> writes:
But in fact translations from some arbitrary charset into normalized
Unicode are not invertible.
which is why you can't expect all Unicode to be normalized, because it
may have been translated from another charset.
Rubbish. Read what I wrote.
I was talking of code C -> *normalized* Unicode -> code C.
So the Unicode in question was normalized by definition. And the
transformation from C to normalized unicode is NOT invertible (in
general).
--
Charles H. Lindsey ---------At Home, doing my own thing------------------------
Tel: +44 161 436 6131 Fax: +44 161 436 6133 Web: http://www.cs.man.ac.uk/~chl
Email: chl(_at_)clw(_dot_)cs(_dot_)man(_dot_)ac(_dot_)uk Snail: 5
Clerewood Ave, CHEADLE, SK8 3JU, U.K.
PGP: 2C15F1A9 Fingerprint: 73 6D C2 51 93 A0 01 E7 65 E8 64 7E 14 A4 AB A5