I had been assuming that the aggregation would take place
at the "prefix" level of IPv6 addresses and that the unique
component would be in some lower order part of the 128 bit space.
If I have a bad model of that, I'd appreciate offline explanation.
thanks
vint
At 04:19 PM 8/3/2000 -0400, Valdis(_dot_)Kletnieks(_at_)vt(_dot_)edu wrote:
You don't want to assign network addresses on a per-manufacturer basis.
Network addresses have to be aggregable.
That's why we have ARP because MAC addresses on an Ehternet are assigned
per manufacturer. But that's OK, because IPv6 has ARP ;)
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