Matthew.van.Eerde wrote:
I was thinking on the lines that ~ means "all bets are off" - so
there's a 50% authorization. From a conditional probability
perspective, conditioning on a 50% chance is a no-op. Consider a
Bayesian spam content analysis with a token that appears equally in
spam and good email.
I agree that the assignment of 0.1 to ? is arbitrary.
Perhaps ? should
continue to mean SOFTFAIL and not have any probability
assigned to it.
Or perhaps it has probability 0+, or epsilon, for some sufficiently
small value of epsilon. ;)
I have ~ and ? backwards above! Apologies. tr/~?/?~/
Matthew(_dot_)van(_dot_)Eerde(_at_)hbinc(_dot_)com
805.964.4554 x902
Hispanic Business Inc./HireDiversity.com Software Engineer
perl -e"map{y/a-z/l-za-k/;print}shift" "Jjhi pcdiwtg Ptga wprztg,"